8 ĐỀ THI THỬ IELTS LISTENING

· Listening

Bên cạnh phân tích đề thi thật IELTS WRITING TASK 2 dạng Advantages & Disadvantages, IELTS TUTOR phân tích và cung cấp thêm 8 ĐỀ THI THỬ IELTS LISTENING.

1. Đề 1

1.1 Section 1 (Question 1-11)

Question 1-8

Fill in the missing information below.

PESTAWAY QUESTIONNAIRE

Name: (Block letters please) (1) ..................

Address: (2) ....................

Age: (3) .......................

Occupation: (4) ........................

5. Why did you buy Pestaway? (Tick where appropriate)

▢ cockroaches

▢ fleas

▢ ants

▢ woodworms

6. Where did you buy it? (Tick where appropriate)

▢ supermarket

▢ chemist’s

▢ department store

▢ corner shop

7. How did you first hear about Pestaway? (Tick where appropriate)

▢ friend

▢ advertisement

▢ supermarket

▢ newspaper

▢ radio advertisement

8. You are (Tick where appropriate) with Pestaway?

▢ very satisfied

▢ satisfied

▢ fairly dissatisfied

▢ dissatisfied

Questions 9-11

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

9. How long has the woman been using Pestaway?

....................................................................................

10. How often does she use it?

....................................................................................

11. Where does she use it?

....................................................................................

1.2 Section 2 (Questions 12 - 19)

Put a tick (v) in the appropriate column to indicate whether the following statements are true or false.

True False

12. The summer course lasts one month.

13. The students already know who their class teacher are.

14. The students have already been on a sightseeing tour of the area.

15. All the students have to do a project on the history of the school.

16. There is a new computer room in the school.

17. Classes begin at 9.00 a.m.

18. The social activities programme is not compulsory.

19. The disco begins at 9.30 p.m.

1.3 Section 3 (Questions 21 - 31)

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1.4 Section 4 (Questions 32 - 41)

Bài tập thuộc chương trình học của lớp IELTS LISTENING ONLINE 1 KÈM 1 của IELTS TUTOR

Complete the summary, using words from the box. There are more words in the box than you need. Some words may be used more than once.

rest

relaxed

angry

45 degrees

stress

work

hanger

40 degrees

chew

exhaustion

desk

crowded

noise

tense

study

tired

speak

smoky

relaxation

exercise

raised

warm

The most usual cause of headache is (32) ................... Headaches can also come as a result of excessive (33) .............

Some people say they get a headache when they (34) ............. This is probably because they get very (35) ................. It may also be because they are working in poor light which makes them very (36) ................. It is helpful if your reading material is on a bookrest at (37) ............... to the desk. It is also important to be (38) ............... in bed.

You may even get a headache because you (39) ................ too hard.

The best advice is to try to eat regular meals, get enough (40) .......... and avoid (41) ............ places.

2. Đề 2

Bài tập thuộc chương trình học của lớp IELTS LISTENING ONLINE 1 KÈM 1 của IELTS TUTOR

2.1 Section 1 (Questions 1 - 10)

Complete the notes below.

NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Date: August 24th

Place: 1……………. Grill

People to invite:

  • 2……………. from college
  • Cousins
  • 3……………. and boss

Date to send out invites: 4……………. August

Need to ask each person for this much; 5 $......................

Grill idea 6……………. light

For the meal:

  • Buffet 7……… is probably cheaper than everyone ordering individually.
  • People can buy drinks themselves or 8……………

Ask people to bring:

  • A/an 9……………. for music
  • Digital 10……………. or ones that can be scanned

2.2 Section 2 (Questions 11-20)

Questions 11-14

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

11. The coach is comfortable because it is …………………………..

12. After all passengers are aboard, the coach will make its first stop at …………………… Island.

13. The ‘Tree Top Walk’ is above a ………………………

14. Passengers will have a …………………. with the alpacas before boarding bus for home.

Questions 15-20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DREAMTIME TOURS

Bookings at 15 ……………… or Tel: 0755624402

16……………TOUR

SUNDAY, MONDAY, FRIDAY

Cost

  • Adult $37.00
  • 17……………$33.00
  • Child $10.00
  • (4-14 years)
  • Family $94.00 (2 Adult. 2 Children)

FULL DAY TOUR 280Km DEPARTS

  • Coolangatta 7.50 am
  • Burleigh 8.10 am
  • Surfers Paradise 18……………
  • Labrador 8.45 am

Prices Include 19 ……………only

Free pick-up from your resort, hotel or motel

* Not included in the fare: Optional tours, luncheons, morning and afternoon tea (unless otherwise specified), 20 ……...

Meals and refreshments are available at all stops (at your own cost).

2.3 Section 3 (Questions 21 - 30)

Questions 21 - 25

Choose the correct answer A, B or C.

21. Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by

A. the number of young people.

B. the casual atmosphere.

C. the range of cultures.

22. To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to

A. travel to southern Australia.

B. bring in artists from other areas.

C. involve themselves in production.

23. The Chinese temple in Darwin

A. is no longer used for its original purpose.

B. was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm.

C. was demolished to make room for new buildings.

24. The main problem with travelling by bicycle is

A. the climate.

B. the traffic.

C. the hills.

25. What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea?

A. It is essential to wear a protective suit.

B. Swimming is only safe during the winter.

C. You should stay in certain restricted areas.

Questions 26 – 30

You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.

26. How long has he been in his present job?

A. Since 2005

B. For about three years

C. For three months.

27. Why does he want a new job?

A. For a change

B. To earn more money

C. To get promotion

28. What does he like most about his job?

A. The right to take action and make decisions

B. His colleagues

C. Working conditions

29. What kind of person are they looking for?

A. Someone prepared to work overtime

B. Someone who is punctual

C. Someone who wants to get on

30. What qualifications does Peter have?

A. A degree

B. A school leaving certificate

C. A postgraduate diploma

2.4 Section 4 (Questions 31 - 40)

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

31. Society cannot

A. find more coal and oil.

B. reduce waste CO2

C. take CO2 from power stations.

32. Turning carbon dioxide into a solid

A. is slow but practical.

B. can be made faster.

C. cannot happen naturally.

33. Seawater

A. has lots of carbonic acid.

B. has closely connected types of life.

C. is highly acidic.

Questions 34-40

Complete the table.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Đề 2

3. Đề 3

Bài tập thuộc chương trình học của lớp IELTS LISTENING ONLINE 1 KÈM 1 của IELTS TUTOR

3.1 Section 1 (Questions 1-10)

Complete the following sentences.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER in each answer.

1………………was thought to be one of the great mysteries of nature.

Ancient people thought that lightning and 2 ………………… were the 3 ………………….of God.

Benjamin Franklin, an American scientist and statesman, was the first to find the connection between 4 …………………

In order to protect buildings from damage by lightning, Benjamin Franklin invented the first 5. ………………in 1752.

Scientists estimate that there are about 6 ……………… flashes of lightning every year.

The safest place to be in case; of an electrical 7 ……………… is in a 8 ……………… car.

Outside one should go to low ground and not 9 ……………… trees.

Inside a house, people should avoid 10 ………………doorways.

3.2 Section 2 (Questions 11 - 20)

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. How long is it recommended you should spend exploring the Valley Food Trait?

A. As much or as little as you want.

B. One day.

C. Half a day.

12. If you were driving to the area from the city, how long would it take you to reach the closest point?

A. 15 minutes.

B. 40 minutes.

C. 55 minutes.

13. What types of place can you not visit in this area?

A. Places to eat.

B. Places to see art.

C. Places to enjoy nature.

Questions 14-17

Write TWO WORDS for each answer.

Write the place name for letters A-D, using the map on the next page.

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14. A ………………….

15. B ………………….

16. C ………………….

17. D …………………

Questions 18-20

Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Which THREE places are the most recommended attractions to see?

A. Chocolate Company.

B. The Ice Creamery.

C. The Organic Market.

D. The Coffee House.

E. The Nougat and Chocolate Factory.

3.3 Section 3 (Questions 21-30)

Questions 21-25

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Forms of media Example

Print

  • books
  • 21 ………………….

Pictures 22 …………………..

Audio (listening)

  • CDs
  • 23 ………………………

Audio-visual

  • film
  • 24 …………………….
  • videos

Electronic 25 ……………………..

Questions 26-30.

Write the appropriate letters A-C.

According to the speakers, in which situation are the following media most useful?

A. Individual children

B. Five or six children

C. Whole class

26. Steps ……………………

27. Computer ………………….

28. Videos …………………

29. Books ………………….

30. Wall maps …………………

3.4 Section 4 (Questions 31-40)

NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

A Pirate's Story: William Kidd

William Kidd lived in the 31 …………………… and gained widespread notoriety as a pirate because his exploits were documented in 32 …………………….

People still search to this day for his 33 ……………………

Timeline of William Kidd's life

1680's Early years at sea

Was known as a legitimate 34 ……………………. and sea captain.

Battled against the French.

Owned property in 35 ……………………

1695 Hired to capture 36 ………………….

1697 Converted to 37 …………………….

Murdered his gunner, William Moore, after a mutiny attempt.

1698 Abandoned former ship to order greatest prize, the “Quedagh Merchant”

1701 After trying to prove his innocence, found guilty and 38 …………………….

Questions about Kidd's life

Later questioning caused some to believe that there was not enough 39 …………………. to declare Kidd guilty.

Some of his treasure were still found and given to 40 ……………………

4. Đề 4

Bài tập thuộc chương trình học của lớp IELTS LISTENING ONLINE 1 KÈM 1 của IELTS TUTOR

4.1 Section 1 (Questions 1 - 10)

Questions 1-4

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

What is the maximum you want to spend on a DVD player?

(1) ..............................................

How often do you watch DVDs?

(2) ..............................................

What type of films do you enjoy?

(3) ..............................................

What other DVDs (non-film) do you watch?

(4) ..............................................

Questions 5-10

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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4.2 Section 2 (Questions 11-20)

Questions 11-12

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11. An au pair is a single girl without any dependents who comes to UK to learn English and to live as ................... of an English speaking family.
12. An au pair may help in the house for up to ..................... hours a day for pocket money.

Circle the correct letter(s).

Choose TWO letters.

Questions 13 & 14: Circle the suitable tasks that an au pair may do in the house.

A. Dusting the house.

B. Painting the house.

C. Taking care of children.

D. Mowing lawn.

E. Cleaning the house.

15. How much money should be given as pocket money?

A. 14 to 20 pounds a week.

B. 15 to 20 pounds a week.

C. 15 to 20 pounds a month.

16. An au pair must be a single girl aged

A. under 17.

B. between 17 and 27.

C. more than 27.

Choose TWO letter(s).

Questions 17 & 18: Circle the appropriate nationalities for an au pair

A. Japanese

B. French

C. Turkish

D. Russia

E. UK

Questions 19-20

Complete the information below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Write Two possible ways for an au pair to apply for a longer stay in the UK.

19. By ............. to Lunar house.

20. In person at one of the public Enquiry ......................

4.3 Section 3 (Questions 21-31​)

Questions 21-26

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.

When did the Language Learning Centre enter its new building?

21 ……………………..

Which country do most of the students come from now?

22 ………………….

What were the Indonesians studying at the Language Learning Centre?

23 ………………….

How long should students stay at the Language Learning Centre?

24 ………………….

What is the most common class size?

25 ………………….

Who does Dr Robinson consider to be the best promoters of the Centre?

26 ………………….

Questions 27-31

Choose the correct letter A-C for each activity.

Activity

A. All students

B. Beginners

C. Advanced students

Example

Soccer club A

27 ………… Non-English language courses

28 ………… Jazz club

29 ………… Drama society

30 ………… Choral group

31 ………… Special conversation group

4.4 Section 4 (Questions 32 - 41)

Questions 31-37

Complete the lecture notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The Super Volcano

No specifically defined scientific meaning - refers to volcanoes that have generated the Earth's largest volcanic eruptions.

Super volcano eruption form calderas. Whereas normal volcano craters are measured in the hundreds of meters, a caldera can be easily as large as 32 ……………………. or 50 miles wide.

Super Volcano Caldera Locations:

  • Long Valley, Eastern California (not all active)
  • Toba, Indonesia
  • Lake Taupo, 33 …………………….
  • Japan
  • Indonesia
  • Scotland
  • Alaska

Normal Volcano Formation: Magma column rises from Earth, erupts and hardens down sides creating the familiar 34 ……………………. mountain

Super Volcano Formation: Magma rises from Earth's mantle creating a 35 ……………………. in the Earth's crust. Chamber increases to enormous size, creating colossal pressure. Eruption finally forms massive caldera.

Results of Super Volcano Eruption

Ash, dust and sulfur dioxide ejected, blocking sun and creating cold wave lasting several years. Plants and animals (including humans) would die.

Most recent caldera-forming eruption happened 36 ……………………. years ago approximately. Ash, pumice, and gases covered more than 3000 square miles and also went high into the stratosphere to circle the Earth, affecting its temperature. Ash from this eruption still found in Iowa and in 37 …………………… from the Gulf of Mexico.

Questions 38-41

According to the Earth Sciences lecture, which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true.

Choose FOUR letters (A - H) and write them in any order in boxes 38 - 41 on your answer sheet.

A. Yellowstone Park has previously suffered three enormous eruptions.

B. The first super eruption in Yellowstone was over three million years ago.

C. The first super eruption in Yellowstone park created a caldera bigger than another state of the US.

D. Scientists say Yellowstone Park should erupt approximately every 600,000 years.

E. The ground level of Yellowstone Park has increased by over half a metre over the last 10 years.

F. A taskforce has been set up to plan for the possible devastation that a Yellowstone eruption would cause.

G. Evidence suggests that the super-eruption at Toba caused the Earth's population of humans to drop to about 10,000.

H. A super-eruption could make the Earth's temperature drop to 5 to 10 degrees Celsius.

5. Đề 5

Bài tập thuộc chương trình học của lớp IELTS LISTENING ONLINE 1 KÈM 1 của IELTS TUTOR

5.1 Section 1 (Questions 1-10)

Questions 1-5

Circle the correct letters A-C.

Example

When was the last time that John and Frank saw each other?

A. 9 years

B. 10 years

C. 11 years

1. What is John’s job?

A. Doctor

B. Teacher

C. Chemist

2. Which of the following did John not visit on his travels?

A. Europe

B. Africa

C. North America

3. What’s Frank’s Job?

A. Journalist

B. Travel writer

C. College lecturer

4. How many children do Frank and Liz have?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

5. When did John and Kate get married?

A. The last year of college

B. The year after graduation

C. 2 years after graduation

Questions 6-9

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

6. What time should Frank and Liz go to dinner? ……………………………………..

7. What’s Frank’s mobile phone number? ……………………………………

8. What’s on the other side of the road from John and Kate’s flat? …………………………..

9. What does Liz NOT like to eat? ……………………………….

Questions 10

Circle the correct letter A-C.

10. Which bell button is the one for John and Kate’s flat?

8 đề thi thử IELTS Listening

5.2 Section 2 (Questions 11 - 20)

Questions 11-12

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. The speaker says solar panels…….

A. are expensive.

B. should be considered more seriously.

C. are not very popular.

12. In the speaker’s opinion, most people……….

A. neglect to turn the heating down.

B. wash their clothes too often.

C. do not use the kitchen efficiently.

Questions 13-20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Energy-saving tips

Living in 13 ……………………. accommodation? Check windows and doors for draughts.

Don’t leave laptops and TVs on 14 ……………………… overnight.

Don’t use 15 ……………………. than you need when making hot drinks.

Put 16 …………………… post and pans when boiling water.

Where possible, avoid placing the refrigerator next to the 17 …………………………

Remember to turn down the fridge temperature control in the 18 …………………….

Don’t forget to 19 ………………… the freezer and don’t put too much food in it.

Reduce the temperature of your washing machine to 20 ……………………… degrees.

5.3 Section 3 (Questions 21 - 30)

Question 21

Circle the correct letters from A-C.

21. What’s the topic of Ivy and Andy’s presentation?

A. Local cinemas.

B. Local theatres.

C. Local entertainment.

Questions 22-30

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN WORDS for each answer.

Survey

Cinemas

22. Audience size: the Multi-screen Complex accounts for ………………………..of all cinema seats, the Park Cinema accounts for ………………………………

23. The Late-night Odeon is the ………………………… cinema.

24. The Complex is more ………………………… and ……………………. out of the city.

Theatres

25. Ivy and Andy chose ……………………… theatre to discuss.

26. There’s a peak around ……………………….. / December going to theatres.

27. The period in April/ ……………………….. when neither is particularly popular.

Music

28. Ivy and Andy investigated the sort of …………………….. clubs.

29. The Sansue got ……………………. tick (-s).

30. The Baldrock Cafe is popular with students, which features big ……………………….

5.4 Section 4 (Questions 31 - 40)

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Penguins in Africa

They are also called Jackass Penguins for the sound they make.

The 31 …………………….. of their body remains constant.

They restrict their 32 …………………….. on land from dusk till dawn.

They cannot fly because they have heavy 33 …………………..

They nest under the tree 34 ………………………

They eat tree 35 …………………………

Predators

* seals

* 36 ………………………

* segults (eat the penguin 37 ……………………….)

Threats

They lose 38 ……………………. in winter.

They are fighting for nesting 39 ………………………… and food because of human activities.

In order to improve survivorship, it is helpful to increase the 40 ……………………… of their genes.

6. Đề 6

6.1 Section 1 (Questions 1-10)

Questions 1-5

Choose the correct letter.

1. Which of the statements is true?

The candidate

A. needs to take the IELT5 General module.

B. needs to take the ILETS Academic module.

C. is not sure which module he needs to take.

2. On which days would the candidate like to take the exam on?

A. The same day.

B. Different days.

C. Weekends.

3. The Listening, Reading and Writing Tests take place on

A. Tuesday.

B. Thursday.

C. Saturday.

4. What kind of ID can the candidate NOT use?

A. A driving license.

B. A library card.

C. A passport.

5. The candidate will do the Listening, Reading and Writing tests

A. without breaks.

B. with one-hour breaks between the tests.

C. with 15-minute breaks between the tests.

Questions 6-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

IELTS Test Contact Information and Details

Number of days to get results: 6 …………………………..

Test fee: 7 US$ …………………

Send documents registered mail to:

  • Exams Adiministrator
  • 47 Clover Place
  • 8 ………………………… New York

Contact email:

  • 9 Zip ………………………..
  • inquiry@examsmail.com

Contact telephone number: 10 …………………………

6.2 Section 2 (Questions 11-20)

Questions 11 – 15

Label the plan below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

8 đề thi thử IELTS Listening

Questions 16-20

Write the correct letter, A, B, or C next to questions 16-20 below.

NB You may choose any letter more than once.

What does the tour guide tell her tour group about each of the following places on the day’s itinerary?

A. They’ll definitely go there.

B. They might go there if time allows.

C. They certainly won’t go there.

16. The Aquarium

17. Solheim Country Club.

18. Milltown Winery.

19. The Zoological Gardens.

20. The Stout Brewery.

6.3 Section 3 (Questions 21 - 30)

You are going to hear a lecture about the world’s energy.

Listen carefully and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to fill in each blank in the following summary.

The world’s energy can be broadly divided into two sources. The first sources, including fossil fuels and minerals are 21 …………………. while the second sources, such as the winds, the waves and the sun, will last as long as the earth and the sun 22 …………………. and yet, most of this second source category remains 23 ………………….

Scientists said most energy is produced today by 24 …………………. hydrocarbon fuels, but we are still not sure how much fuel 25 …………………. has hidden in the earth. They predicted that between now and the year 26 …………………. the quantity of energy required by the world will 27 …………………. almost 28 …………………. of its proven recoverable fossil fuels. And they even said 29 …………………. of the fossil will have been used up by the year 30 ………………….

6.4 Section 4 (Questions 31 - 40)

Questions 31-34 

Complete the summary below.

NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

PROJECT MANAGEMENT

Last week’s definition of project management

Project Management has

a clear 31 ………………………

goals, budget and 32 ……………………

A project can be divided into 33 ……………………..

The subject of today’s lecture is 34 ……………………

8 đề thi thử IELTS Listening

Question 40

Complete the sentences below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for the answer.

40. The three elements of Stage 2 will be examined in more depth in ………………………..

7. Đề 7

7.1 Section 1

Questions 1-6

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Contact Details!

Number of Owners: 1 ……………………
Condition:

  • overall good.
  • 2 …………………….. done last year.

Reason for Selling: (owner) 3 ……………………..
Asking Price: 4 ……………………..
Appointment Time: 5 ………………………
Address: 6 …………… Street, Parkwood.
Contact name: Elena

Questions 7-10
Circle the correct letter A-C.

7. What happened to Sam’s car?

A. It was replaced by another one.
B. It broke down.
C. It was stolen.
 

8. Why does Jan need a car now?

A. She lives too far from the university.
B. She spends too much time on the bus.
C. She would feel safer at night with a car.

9. What does Sam recommend?

A. check the service records
B. avoid buying an old car
C. get a mechanical inspection
 

10. How are they travelling to Elena’s?

A. by motorcycle
B. on foot
C. by bus

7.2 Section 2

Questions 11-12

Circle the correct letter.

11. What is one of the new advantages in the dining facilities ?

A. more students.

B. more variety.

C. more service.

12. What was one problem with the dining options last year ?

A. Students did not have enough to eat.

B. Students had to pay too much money.

C. Students had to eat whatever was served.

Questions 13-14

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

13…………………. and pasta are an example of Italian food.

14…………………. American food consists of hot dogs.

Questions 15-18

Circle the correct letters from A-C

15. Why does the school say the food will be better?

A. They hired real chefs.

B. The food is more expensive.

C. They will make more kinds.

16. When will the dining facilities open and close?

A. 6 am and 12 pm.

B. 6 am and 12 am.

C. 12 pm and 6 pm.

17. What can students do if they are hungry in the afternoon ?

A. Go out and buy food on the street.

B. Wait till dinner time.

C. Go to the student store for snacks.

18. What must you do to eat in the dining facilities if you are not a student?

A. Purchase a dining facility card.

B. Purchase meals at the door.

C. Purchase meals from other students.

Questions 19-20

Circle TWO letters

Which of the following are rules of the dining facilities?

A. Do not waste food.

B. You may bring friends in to eat.

C. Bring your own plates and trays.

D. Clean your own plates and trays.

E. Don't litter.

7.3 Section 3

Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. Becoming a Friend of Laverton Arts Centre
A. costs £15.
B. costs £50.
C. doesn't cost anything.

22. How many newsletters do Friends receive each year?
A. four
B. one
C. three

23. Friends of the Arts Centre can buy
A. more tickets than other visitors
B. tickets before other visitors.
C. books earlier than other visitors

24. There might be reductions on tickets for events
A. in the Small Theatre.
B. in the Main Theatre.
C. at the Arts Cinema.

25. The Arts Centre is changing
A. the password for its website.
B. its website address.
C. the design of its website.

26. Friends of Laverton Arts Centre are
A. required to attend a certain number of events.
B. not forced to attend a certain number of events.
C. encouraged to count how many events they attend.

Questions 27-30
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

27. The woman has visited the Arts Centre __________________ times in total.
28. The first event at the Arts Centre the woman went to was a _________________
29. The woman was unaware that there was a ____________ at the Arts Centre.
30. The woman likes the idea of a __________.

7.4 Section 4

Questions 31-36

Circle the correct letters.

31. In a previous lecture, Dr North talked about

A. the Marine Habital Research unit.

B. humankind's relationship with sailing.

C. humankind's relationship with sea.

32. The focus of today's talk will be on

A. problems the fishing industry faces worldwide.

B. marine fish recipes.

C. European fishing problems.

33. A book list and relevant articles can be

A. found only in the lecture room.

B. found on the Marine Habital Research Unit website.

C. found in the lecture room and on the department website.

34. During the last century

A. stocks of rare species have fallen dramatically.

B. the world population has grown very fast.

C. fishing has become less efficient but heavier.

35. As well as over-fishing which of the following is a research for fishing stock being on the point of collapse in the public?

A. Ocean ecology has changed.

B. Fishing has spread to international waters.

C. Fish has become cheaper.

36. In the UK

A. fish used to be seen as a luxury.

B. fish is not cheaper than meat.

C. fish used to be seen as a cheap meal.

Questions 37-40

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Reasons why the number of fish is declining

A large (37) ................. of catch nowadays is discarded.

Solutions to the problem

(38) ............................. and nets are to blame for the deaths of many fish.

Reducing the quantity of fish for each boat.

(39) ............................. are not a complete solution.

Example of disappearance of fish

Newfoundland, where (40) ...................... disappeared.

8. Đề 8

8.1 Section 1 (Questions 1-10)

Questions 1-5

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.

Example

Hannah’s Dad

A. can hear her very well.

B. cannot hear her very well.

C. wants her to move.

D. says the line is clear.

1. How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?

A. Three weeks.

B. Less than three weeks.

C. More than three weeks.

D. More than four weeks.

2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because

A. it is the end of the academic year.

B. Hannah is a new student.

C. the area has lots of new technology companies.

D. the town is small.

3. £400 a month for rent is

A. higher than Hannah has paid before.

B. lower than Hannah has paid before.

C. not cheap for the area.

D. cheap for the area.

4. At the moment Hannah is living

A. in a hostel.

B. in a suitcase.

C. in a hotel.

D. in a flat.

5. Hannah's new flat

A. is a bit noisy.

B. is on the second floor.

C. has two bedrooms.

D. has a large roof terrace.

Questions 6-7

Complete Dad's note.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

Hannah's address:

6……………. Whitehart Road.

7……………. 9RJ.

Questions 8-10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

8. Hannah plans to travel to her parents' house on Friday…………….

9. Hannah's Dad will return the van on…………….

10. The journey time is about…………….

8.2 Section 2

Questions 11-14
Circle FOUR letters A-H.

Which FOUR planned developments are mentioned? 

A. a village town hall

B. a leisure centre

C. a play area for children

D. a hospital

E. an industrial development

F. extra houses

G. a steel works

H. a motorway

Questions 15-18
Tick Column A if the individual is in favour of the proposals. Tick Column B if the individual is against the proposals.

8 đề thi thử IELTS Listening

15. ............................

16. ............................

17. ............................

18. ............................

Questions 19 and 20
Circle the correct letter A-D.

19. Upton is

A. close to Tartlesbury

B. far from Tartlesbury

C. connected by rail to Tartlesbury

D. a town with a university

20. The College has

A. never had a 100% success rate

B. had a 100% success rate this year

C. always been very successful

D. never been successful

8.3 Section 3

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

- The land for development has not been used for over a…………………

- There was pressure to build a training centre and a ………………… on the land.

- Sponsorship has received from a number of ……………………….

Label the plan below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

8 đề thi thử IELTS Listening

(1)…………………….

(2)…………………….

(3)…………………….

(4)…………………….

(5)…………………….

(6)…………………….

(7)…………………….

8.4 Section 4 (Questions 31 - 40)

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct answer A. B or C

31. “Extremophiles” are life forms that can live in

A. isolated areas.

B. hostile conditions.

C. new habitats.

32. The researchers think that some of the organisms they found in Antarctica are

A. new species.

B. ancient colonies.

C. types of insects.

33. The researchers were the first people to find life forms in Antarctica

A. in the soil.

B. under the rock surface.

C. on the rocks

Questions 34-40

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD for each answer.

How the extremophiles survive

Access to the sun's heat can create a 34 …………….. for some organisms. The deeper the soil, the higher the 35 …………….. of salt. Salt can protect organisms against the effects of 36 …………….. even at very low temperatures.

All living things must have access to 37 …………….. water. Salt plays a part in the process of 38 …………….. which prevents freezing. The environment of 39 …………….. is similar to the dry valleys of Antarctica. This research may provide evidence of the existence of extraterrestrial life forms and their possible 40 …………….. on other planets.

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