IELTS PRACTICE TEST 4: 8 đề thi thử

Bên cạnh Bài sửa đề thi IELTS WRITING TASK 2 ngày 22/8/2020 của HS đi thi đạt 7.0 writing, cũng nên thường xuyên luyện tập các đề thi thử IELTS Listening để rèn luyện kĩ năng IELTS Listening trong phòng thi của mình nhé

Questions 1 – 6

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Giant Truck Moving Company: Customer Inquiry Form

Inquiry Number: 1 …………………..

Customer Name: Mrs. June Rayburn

Destination: 

2 ………………….. Street, Grand City.

Origin: 

12 Irving Court, Grand City

Move Distance:

3 …………………..

Apartment size or number of bedrooms:

4 …………………..

List of large items to be moved:

Sofa

Kitchen Table

Two 5 …………………..

Two beds

Three large bookshelves

6 …………………..

Number of boxes:

Approximately 60

Questions 7 – 10

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

7. The woman describes her piano as being

A. special

B. small

C. narrow

8. The woman’s current apartment and her new address

A. may have some steps.

B. are on the bottom level of her building.

C. do not allow pianos

9. If the movers do not move the woman’s piano, the cost of the move will be about

A. $100

B. $475

C. $575

10. The woman was instructed to send a photo and

A. the side of her piano.

B. the type of her piano.

C. the weight of her piano.

Questions 11 -13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

11. Most of the animals at Moray Bay Aquarium come from

A. different parts of the world

B. the same region as the aquarium

C. nearby lakes and rivers

12. One of the two main goals of the aquarium is to encourage people

A. to take better care of the local ocean environment

B. to appreciate the aquarium more

C. to increase youth program participation

13. The purpose of the Beach Bash is

A. to throw a party for volunteers

B. to raise money for a kids program

C. to increase aquarium attendance

Questions 14 – 20

Label the plan of the Moray Bay Beach Event Center below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 21 – 28

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the lecture for each answer.

21. The video shows chimpanzees using sign language to talk to one another, people and………………………..

22. Since the videos appear dated, a student questions whether scientists currently perform similar …………….............

23. The professor admits that the examples in the videos are……………………….. ones.

24. A student did not expect that chimpanzees would look so……………………….. with human language.

25. Recent research found that chimpanzees used sign language to communicate in the………………………..

26. It is mentioned that the way people control their vocal cords, ……………………….., teeth and lips is unique to humans.

27. The use of a voice is not a……………………….. in all human languages.

28. Unless they are……………………….. by humans, Chimpanzee sign language is very simple.

Questions 29 - 30

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

29. One reason that wild chimpanzees can only say a few things is

A. they have a limited vocabulary

B. they suffer from displacement

C. they can't learn new words

30. The professor believes that displacement and productivity are

A. common among wild chimpanzees

B. special features of human language

C. not closely related to human language

Questions 31 - 34

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

31. The number of people residing in desert zones globally is approximately………………………..

32. People living in dryland zones often over-use their own ……………………….. such as water.

33. Drought is an example of how desertification can occur………………………..

34. Historically, increasing populations led to the need for irrigated………………………..

Questions 35 – 40

Choose the correct letter: A, B, or C.

Write your answers in boxes 35 – 37 on your answer sheet.

35. What creates very rich soil?

A. chemical fertilizers

B. decaying organisms

C. animal grazing

36. Healthy topsoil can reduce desertification by

A. preventing evaporation

B. absorbing more water

C. fostering plant growth

37. Trees prevent desertification by

A. limiting animal migration

B. reflecting sunlight

C. keeping soil in its place

Which THREE features below are mentioned as methods to address the problem of desertification?

Choose three letters: A-G

Write your answers in boxes 38 - 40 of your answer sheet.

A. Shielding plants from sunlight

B. Rotating crops

C. Watering plants responsibly

D. Eliminating harmful plantlife

E. Stopping invasive species

F. Planting trees strategically

G. Limiting overfishing

Questions 1-5

What comment does the tutor make about each part of the presentation?

Write lite correct letter, A-C, next to Questions 1–5.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

Parts of Presentation

1. the introduction

2. the background

3. the description of the process

4. the advantages/disadvantages

5. the conclusion

Comments

A. lt needs to be shorter.

B. The ideas are difficult to follow.

C. Some information should be added.

Questions 6-10

Complete the flow chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for answer.

The desalination process

Introductory point: a 6 …………………… can desalinate sea water using its throat.

Collection: sea water passes through a canal into the 7……………………

Treatment: rubbish is removed.

Salt removal: sea water passes through a membrane under high pressure; a very 8………………… process.

Produces fresh water and salty brine - can harm 9……………………

Use: human consumption and irrigating 10……………………

Questions 11-15

Complete the repair schedule.

Write the correct letter, A-F, for each answer.

Problems to Fix

A. Birds in ceiling

B. Broken windows

C. Electrical fault

D. Fallen tree

E. Leaking roof

F. Staining on walls

Questions 16-20

Complete the sentences.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Additional Details Concerning Repairs

The stained walls will be painted 16 ………………..

Extra paint will be left in the 17 ………………..

The baby birds will be given to a 18 ………………..

The fallen tree will be used as 19 ………………..

The smaller parts of the tree will be put in a 20 ………………..

Questions 21-24

Complete the timetable. Write the correct letter, A-H, for each answer.

A. BBQ

B. Careers lecture

C. Computer lab visit

D. Dance

E. Library tour

F. Student Union induction

G. University tour

H. Legal rights lecture

Questions 25-30

Complete the labels.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for answer.

Questions 31-35

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

They might prey on animals people depend on for a living, but wolves are actually a 31 ................................ of the Earth's living-system.

Wolves hunt in small groups and have a well-developed 32 ................................

At the top of the hierarchy are an alpha male and an alpha 33 ................................

The alpha pair's pups are usually the 34 ................................ successful.

Challenges for leadership do not always lead to physical 35 ................................ but are mostly for show.

Questions 36-38

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

36. Gray wolves are now found only in Canada, Alaska, Northern Eurasia and 36

A. many other place in the southern hemisphere.

B. a few other isolated areas in the world.

C. on the Indian subcontinent.

37. Supporters of the reintroduction program agreed to

A. give money to people whose cattle were at risk.

B. delay restoring the wolf population for several years.

C. fund more studies.

38. After reintroducing the wolves, biodiversity in Yellowstone Park increased and

A. maintained itself.

B. fell soon afterwards.

C. stayed exactly the same.

Questions 39 and 40

Choose two letters, A-F.

What are TWO results of the wolf reintroduction program in Yellowstone Park?

A. ranchers have become angry.

B. there are fewer tourists in Yellowstone.

C. eagle and hawk species have increased.

D. Yellowstone is not as healthy as before.

E. the local economy has benefitted.

F. local population are fearful.

Questions 1-6

Example: What does the man want to buy?

A. a cellular phone

B. a normal telephone

C. a phone card

1. What kind of cellular phone does the speaker want?

A. sophisticated function

B. basic functions

C. minimum functions

2. Why does the speaker want a phone that is not too big and not too small?

A. It will be too heavy and he might lose it.

B. It will be too light and unreliable.

C. He might drop it and break it.

3. What is the best feature of the R55?

A. It is lightweight.

B. It is free.

C. It can be used worldwide.

4. What is one advantage of the W55 phone?

A. The battery will last longer.

B. The size is smaller.

C. The screen is larger.

5. What is the feature of the "Rocket" that younger users like the most?

A. It is small in size.

B. It is cheap

C. The screen changes colors.

6. How much will the phones cost the speaker per month?

A. $40

B. $50

C. $60

Questions 7-10

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answer.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Cellular Phone Application

Name: Richard Derrick Jones

7. Profession ………………..

8. Address: 322 1st Street, ……………….. California

9. Phone number: ………………..

10. Number of phones activated ………………..

Questions 11-13

Fill in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Facts about Brisbane

Besides sunny cafes, Brisbane also offers artistic atmosphere with many 11 …………………. and ………………….

Being established in 12 …………………., Brisbane has become third biggest city.

In 1988, Brisbane held the 13 ………………….

Questions 14-16

Fill in the table with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Activities in Brisbane

April: 14 …………………. Festival

August: Film festival

September and October: Outdoor festival of 15 ....

January: Cockroach 16 ………………….

Questions 17-20

Fill in the table with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answers

Scenic Spots in Brisbane

Questions 21-30

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Listen to the news report about a robbery, and the complete the notes from the detective's notebook.

Time of robbery: (shortly after) 11:30 a.m.

Place: Halifax Building Society, 21 ………………….. street

Amount stolen: 22 …………………..

MAN

Height: 1.8m / 180cm Age: around 23 …………………..

Eye colour: 24 ………………….. Hair: short, curly red or ginger

Clothes 25 ………………….. green sweater, three-quarter-length blue coat

Name 26 …………………..

Accent: 27 …………………..

WOMAN

Height: 1.7m / 170cm

Age: early twenties

Eye colour: blue

Hair: straight, shoulder-length blonde

Clothes: long white (loose-fitting) raincoat

CAR

28 ………………….. Ford Escort

29 ………………….. number: 6595 ERI

Headlight: 30 …………………..

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Background

Taking in oxygen: mammals-lungs; fish-gills

Long-held dreams-humans swimming underwater without oxygen tanks

Oxygen tanks considered too 31 ………………….. and large

Attempts to extract oxygen directly from water

1960s-prediction that humans would have gills added by 32 …………………..

Ideas for artificial gills were inspired by research on

• fish gills
• fish swim bladders
• animals without gills-especially bubbles used by 33 …………………..

Building a simple artificial gill

Make a watertight box of a material which lets 34 ………………….. pass through

Fill with air and submerge in water

Important that the diver and the water keep 35 …………………..

The gill has to have a larger 36 …………………..

Designers often use a network of small 37 ………………….. on their gill

Main limitation-problems caused by increased 38 ………………….. in deeper water

Other applications

Supplying oxygen for use on 39 …………………..

Powering 40 ………………….. cells for driving machinery underwater.

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER (or each answer.)

Traditional Samoan Houses

Overall design

house: round or 1 …………………..

no walls

2 ………………….. to shelter occupants from wind and rain

floor: 3 ………………….. to control the temperature

Roof

Dome-shaped and thatched using 4 …………………..

5 ………………….. sides prevent dampness

high top permits 6 ………………….. loss

Supporting posts

made using wood from the 7………………….. around the village

used to show 8 ………………….. of chiefs and speakers at meetings

attached using rope made by the 9 ………………….. in the village

rope pulled tightly to form a 10 ………………….. around beams and posts

Questions 11-20

Label the map below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Questions 13-18 

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

19. How often do Top Bus Company tours run?

............................................................................

20. Where can you catch a number one sightseeing tour from?

..................................................................................................

Questions 21-23

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. In the practice exams, the students did

A. two exams altogether.

B. seven exams in total.

C. eleven exams in total.

22. Adam thinks that essay papers are

A. inappropriate for assessing theoretical medical knowledge.

B. not good for assessing practical medical knowledge.

C. suitable for testing theoretical medical knowledge.

23. Mary criticizes multiple-choice questions, because

A. they require detailed instructions.

B. they benefit women more than men.

C. they favour men rather than women.

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which two aspects of the role-play examination are mentioned?

A. the rest stations

B. 24 test stations

C. the recording

D. the examiners

E. the simulated patients

Questions 26-30

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

In the problem-solving tests, students had to work in groups of four people and 26 ………………. To solve a problem. As they discussed the problem, 27 ………………. watched them. As well as assessing the ability to speak, the problem-solving tested if people can 28 ………………. organize their thoughts and demonstrate they can be part of a 29 ………………. Re-sits of the final exams are held in September. After that any problems are dealt with by 30 ……………….

Questions 31-33

31. How were the Hawaiian Islands originally formed?

A. from the ocean

B. from volcanoes

C. from mountains

32. Which island is the most populous and economically important?

A. Hawaii

B. Honolulu

C. Oahu

Questions 33-34 

Circle TWO correct answer.

Why is Hawaii sometimes called "The Paradise of the Pacific"?

A. the variety of fruits

B. the abundant sunshine

C. the variety of animals

D. the beautiful women

E. the volcanic peaks

F. the great food

Questions 35-37 

Circle ONE correct answer.

35. How do volcanoes damage property?

A. The heat burns up houses.

B. The lava runs down into the cities.

C. The earthquake rattles the cities.

36. What is the name of the most famous volcano?

A. Diamond Head

B. Dreamer Head

C. Dollar Head

37. Who were the first group of immigrant to arrive?

A. the Japanese

B. the Chinese

C. the Filipinos

Questions 38-40

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answer. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

TOUR PACKAGE TO HAWAII

Price 38 ………………….. per person,

Duration 39 ………………….. days,

Things to see 40 ………………….. volcanoes and the forests.

Questions 1 - 4

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Study abroad application

Name: Leela Kimh

Wants to study abroad during: the entire (1) ………………… year of university

Previous experience living abroad: a summer (2) ………………… in Buenos Aires, Argentina

Need financial aid for: plane (3) ………………… to South America

Intended degree: bachelor of arts in Spanish and Latin American (4) …………………

Questions 5 - 7

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

5. Leela's friend who studied in China said

A. the food was very different

B. the people were friendly

C. there was difficulty communicating

6. One problem people studying abroad have is

A. with having enough money

B. feeling homesick and missing friends

C. eating different kinds of food

7. Corben says that when applying for a study abroad program

A. Leela needs to get parental permission

B. Leela needs to keep things organized

C. Leela has to raise money

Questions 8 - 10

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

8. Leela must make sure her classes abroad will ………………… towards her degree.

9. The minimum grade point ………………… to study abroad is 3.2.

10. After filling out the application Leela must ………………… them to the Office of Study Abroad.

Questions 11 - 16

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. The food festival takes place

A. at the beginning of April

B. at the end of April

C. in the middle of March

12. The East Asian section will feature cuisine from

A. Vietnam and Thailand

B. Japan and China

C. France and Italy

13. The Latin American section will have

A. South American food

B. South Asian cuisine

C. food from Germany

14. Besides food tasting there will also be

A. live music and dancing

B. stores selling their products

C. events that show people how to cook

15. For a list of events, people can

A. call the information centre

B. look them up on the internet

C. pick up a brochure

16. The speaker highly recommends that participants

A. practice their cooking techniques

B. buy their aprons beforehand

C. register in advance for workshops

Questions 17 - 20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 21-30 

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. The continuing education program is for people who

A. want to learn new hobbies

B. want to start getting another degree

C. cannot find employment elsewhere

22. The woman is interested in

A. making money to travel the world

B. learning about accounting

C. being an entrepreneur

23. The city centre is accessible by public transportation but

A. is under renovation now

B. does not offer as many classes

C. is more expensive

24. The woman takes care of her ill father during

A. weekends

B. the evening

C. normal working hours

25. The man finally suggests taking classes

A. through the internet

B. at the city centre campus

C. at the suburban satellite campus

26. The class for returning students teaches time management techniques like

A. how to organize and use one's time efficiently

B. how to talk to your teachers

C. making friends in class

27. The class that reviews study skills goes over

A. beginning English grammar

B. basic math skills

C. writing for academic classes

28. According to the dialogue the woman can go online in order to

A. email fellow students

B. contact teachers

C. sign up for classes

29. The price of online classes is

A. the same as everything else

B. cheaper than going to either campus

C. more expensive than going to the city centre campus

30. Textbooks and other course materials are

A. free when taking the online course

B. available at campus bookstores

C. available online

Questions 31 and 32 

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

Donation

• More than 50 million dollars was donated by the estate of Paul A. Muadib
• The entire college felt very excited about this generous (31) ………………
• There was a lot of money given to the school but not enough for every single (32) ……………

Questions 33-37 

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SURVEY DETAILS

First Part

• The first part consisted of an (33) ……………
• Students could list any number of (34) ……………

Second Part

• All the ideas that came up consistently were put to a (35) ……………

Third Part

• There were (36) …………… things that came up over and over again
• The (37) …………… of each of them will be explained.

(33) ……………

(34) ……………

(35) ……………

(36) ……………

(37) ……………

Questions 38

Choose TWO letters A-F.

Which TWO things concerning the dining facilities on campus did students complain about?

A. inadequate number of dining facilities

B. unfriendly staff members

C. inconvenient operating hours

D. quality of food at existing places is low

E. not enough vegetarian food

F. prices that are too expensive

Questions 39 and 40

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

39. Why would a significantly minority of students not benefit from improved dining facilities?

A. they always make their own food and do not use those facilities

B. they live off campus and do not eat their meals at school

C. they cannot afford to eat on campus and buy their food from other places

40. What is one argument against improving the athletics building?

A. it would change the make up of the student body population

B. only a small proportion of students actually

C. it would harm the reputation of the university

Questions 1-9 Complete the notes below.

NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example: Number of bookcases available (Answer: two)

Both bookcases

Width 1 ……………….

Made of 2 ……………….

First bookcase

Cost 3 ……………….

Colour 4 ……………….

Number of shelves six (four are 5 ……………….)

Second bookcase

Colour: dark brown

Other features: almost 80 years old

Has a 6 ………………. At the bottom

Has glass 7 ……………….

Cost 8 ……………….

Details of seller

Name: Mrs. 9 ……………….

Address: 41 Oak Rise, Stanton.

Question 10

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Which map shows the correct location of the seller's house?

Questions 11-16 

Choose the correct letter.

11. The food festival takes place

A. at the beginning of April.

B. at the end of April.

C. in the middle of March.

12. The East Asian section will feature cuisine from

A. Vietnam and Thailand.

B. Japan and China.

C. France and Italy.

13. The Latin American section will have

A. South American food.

B. South Asian cuisine.

C. food from Germany.

14. Besides food tasting, there will also be

A. live music and dancing.

B. stores selling their products.

C. events that show people how to cook.

15. For a list of events, people can

A. call the information center.

B. look them up on the Internet.

C. pick up a brochure.

16. The speaker highly recommends that participants

A. practice their cooking techniques.

B. buy their aprons beforehand.

C. register in advance for workshops.

Questions 17-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Harry and Katy have to concentrate on coastal change for their next project.

Their work could be delayed by the 21……………..

They plan to get help from the Marine Biology unit.

Before they go to the beach, they need to visit the 22 ……………..

Questions 23-26

Who will do each of the following tasks?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26 Tasks

A. Katy

B. Harry

C. Both Katy and Harry

23. take photographs ……………..

24. collect samples ……………..

25. interview people ……………..

26. analyse data ……………..

Questions 27-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

27. Why does Harry want to do the presentation?

A. to practice skills for his future career

B. to catch up with his course requirements

C. to get a better mark than for his last presentation

28. What is Katy's attitude to writing up the project?

A. She is worried about the time available for writing.

B. She thinks it is unfair if she has to do all the writing.

C. She is concerned that some parts will be difficult.

29. Why does Harry want to involve the other students at the end of the presentation?

A. to get their opinions about the conclusions

B. to help him and Katy reach firm conclusions

C. to see if they have reached similar conclusions

30. Katy agrees to deal with any questions because

A. she feels she will be confident about the material.

B. Harry will be doing the main presentation.

C. she has already told Dr Smith she will do this.

Questions 31-37 

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

31. Students should complete their work on the 1950s

A. if they want to be allowed to continue attending lectures.

B. because they will appreciate the information about the 1960s more.

C. otherwise they face the possibility of being failed for their coursework.

32. According to the lecturer, the “baby boom” happened

A. because of relaxed attitudes in the sixties.

B. during a time of war.

C. because people felt more secure.

33. In the sixties, the USA had 70 million

A. teenagers.

B. babies.

C. adults.

34. According to the 1950s, the 1960s were

A. less conservative.

B. more conservative.

C. Just as conservative.

35. The lecturer, literature changed the way women

A. over 40 were treated by society.

B. viewed issues of race in society.

C. felt about their roles in society.

36. The rate crime in the sixties

A. rose nine per cent during the decade.

B. was nine times higher than in the fifties.

C. was nine times lower than in the fifties.

37. What happened at the start of the 1960s?

A. the first heart transplant

B. the introduction of the internet

C. the invention of lasers

Questions 38-40

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

In October, 1962, US President Kennedy met advisers to discuss 38 …………….. which proved that the Cubans were installing nuclear missiles, presumably to use against the US.

Kennedy was faced with three choices:

• to try to resolve the crisis diplomatically;
• to block the delivery of further weapons into Cuba;
• or to attack Cuba.

Kennedy chose 39 …………….. option, which prevented the build-up of more missiles and led to the withdrawal of the existing ones. Most are agreed that a 40 …………….. was narrowly avoided by Kennedy's decision.

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Pinder's Animal Park

Example

Enquiries about temporary work

Personal Details

Name: Jane 1 ……………..

Address: 2 …………….. Exeter

Telephone number: 07792430921

Availability: Can start work on 3 ……………..

Work details

Preferred type of work: Assistant 4 ……………..

Relevant skills: Familiar with kitchen 5 ……………..

Relevant qualifications: A 6 …………….. certificate

Training required: A7 …………….. course

Referee

Name: Dr Ruth Price

Position: 8 ……………..

Phone number: 9 ……………..

Other: Applicant has a form of 10 ……………..

Questions 11 - 15

Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

Tamerton Centre

11. The Tamerton Centre was set up in order to encourage people

A. to enjoy being in the countryside.

B. to help conserve the countryside.

C. to learn more about the countryside.

12. Last year's group said that the course

A. built their self-esteem.

B. taught them lots of new skills.

C. made them fitter and stronger.

13. For the speaker, what's the most special feature of the course?

A. You can choose which activities you do.

B. There's such a wide variety of activities.

C. You can become an expert in new activities.

14. The speaker advises people to bring

A. their own board games.

B. extra table tennis equipment.

C. a selection of films on DVD.

15. Bed-time is strictly enforced because

A. it's a way to reduce bad behaviour.

B. tiredness can lead to accidents.

C. it makes it easy to check everyone's in.

Questions 16 - 20

What rules apply to taking different objects to the Centre?

Match each object with the correct rule, A-C. Write the correct letter, A-C.

Objects

16. Electrical equipment ……....

17. Mobile phone ……....

18. Sun cream ……....

19. Aerosol deodorant ……....

20. Towel ……....

Rules

A. You MUST take this

B. You CAN take this, if you wish

C. You must NOT take this

Questions 21-25

Label the diagram below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 21-25 below.

Biogas Plant

21. Waste container …………

22. Slurry …………

23. Water inlet …………

24. Gas …………

25. Overflow tank …………

Questions 26-30

Complete the flow chart below. Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A - G, next to questions 26 - 30.

A. Identify sequence.

B. Ask questions.

C. Copy.

D. Demonstrate meaning.

E. Distribute worksheet.

F. Draw pictures.

G. Present sentences.

LESSON OUTLINE YEAR THREE TOPIC: ENERGY ACTIVITIES

Questions 31-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C

31. Retailers place popular items

A. in the back of the store

B. near the front entrance.

C. at the end of the aisle.

32. Carpet patterns are used

A. help shoppers feel comfortable.

B. appeal to shoppers' decorative sense.

C. encourage shoppers to walk in certain directions.

33. Retailers can keep customers in the store longer by

A. providing places to sit.

B. keeping the doors closed.

C. lowering the prices.

34. Music is used in stores to

A. entertain customers.

B. slow customers down.

C. make customers shop faster.

35. The scent of vanilla has been used

A. ice cream shops.

B. bakeries

C. clothing stores.

Questions 36-40 

Complete the chart about the effects of color.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Questions 1-3

Listen to the telephone conversation between a student and owner of a paragliding school and answer the questions below. Choose the correct letters A-D.

Example:

Which course does the man suggest?

A. 2 days

C. 5 days

B. 4 days

D. 6 days

1. How much is the beginner's course?

A. $190

B. $320

C. $330

D. $430

2. What does the club insurance cover?

A. injury to yourself injury

B. to your equipment

C. damage to other people's property

D. loss of personal belongings

3. How do the girls want to travel?

A. public transport

B. private bus

C. car

D. bicycle

Questions 4-7

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TELEPHONE MEMO

Name: Maria Gentle

Address: Clo Mr & Mrs 4 ……………..

5 …………….. Newcastle

Fax no: 0249 6 ……………..

Type of Card: 7 ……………..

Question 8

Check TWO letters A-G.

Which TWO of the following items must people take with them?

Note: You must get both parts of the question right to get your mark. The correct answer may not be the actual words which you hear on the tape. Option E in Question 8 is an example of this. Be on the lookout for paraphrasing of this type.

A. sandals

B. old clothes

C. pullover

D. shirt with long sleeves

E. soft drinks

F. hat

G. sunglasses

Question 9

Choose TWO letters A-G.

Which TWO accommodation options mentioned are near the paragliding school?

A. camping youth hostel

B. youth hostel

C. family

D. backpackers' inn

E. caravan park

F. bed and breakfast

G. cheap hotel

Questions 11-15

Choose FIVE letters, A–J.

Which FIVE things should hikers take on the hiking trip?

A. sleeping bag

B. tent

C. food

D. dishes

E. hiking boots

F. backpack

G. walking poles

H. maps

I. jacket

J. first-aid kit

Questions 16-20

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Safety Rules for Hiking

Always stay ahead of the 16 ………………

Stop and wait at any 17 ………………

Don't try to climb 18 ………………

Don't 19 ……………… wild animals.

Always carry 20 ……………… with you.

Questions 21 - 22

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Research details:

Title of project: 21 …………….

Focus of project: entertainment away from 22 …………….

Questions 23 - 26

Choose the correct letters A-C.

23. Which chart shows the percentage of cinema seats provided by the different cinema houses?

A. Chart A

B. Chart B

C. Chart C

24. Which graph shows the relative popularity of different cinemas?

A. Graph A

B. Graph B

C. Graph C

25. What did Rosie and Mike realise about the two theatres?

A. The prices were very similar.

B. They were equally popular.

C. They offered the same facilities.

26. Which graph shows comparative attendance for cinema and theatre?

A. Graph A

B. Graph B

C. Graph C

Questions 27 - 30

Complete the chart about the different music clubs below.

Choose the correct words in the list.

A. Poor

B. OK

C. Excellent

Questions 31 - 32

Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Main focus of lecture: the impact of 31……………. on the occurrence of dust storms.

Two main types of impact:

- break up ground surface, e.g. off-road vehicle use

- remove protective plants, e.g. 32…………….

Questions 33 - 36

Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 37 - 40

Complete the flow chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Drying-up of Aral Sea

Intensive 37 ……………. in Central Asian Republics

|

Drop in water in major tributaries

|

Total volume of water in lake reduced by 38 …………….

|

Increase in wind-blown material

|

Lake has increased its 39 …………….

|

Serious effects on 40 ……………. nearby

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